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quick question

#1TheRealJiraiyaPosted 6/3/2011 1:52:02 PM
there was a verse from the OT that someone posted to me in an attempt to demonstrate that Jesus could not have taken on the sins of others - something about sin being non transferable.

Does anyone know what this verse was? I want to read it again for a reason completely unrelated to the context in which it was presented.
"An idealist is one who, on noticing that a rose smells better than a cabbage, concludes that it will also make better soup." -H.L. Mencken
#2WaruigiPosted 6/3/2011 2:10:50 PM
I don't know, but since I'm here I'll be obnoxious and nitpick what you're saying.

The Old Testament does not have "sin". It has "sins". Sins are acts in violation of Gods law that must be atoned for. Sin is a collective term introduced by Paul in Romans to describe the human condition. This is very important development in the early church and probably Paul's most important, but often overlooked, theological contribution.
"I'm no longer surprised by how long and how earnestly people can talk about absolute rubbish." -shockwavepulsarjim
#3Infamous681Posted 6/3/2011 2:30:51 PM
deuteronomy 24:16?
#4Dathrowed1Posted 6/3/2011 3:07:50 PM
Infamous681 posted...
deuteronomy 24:16?